I guess I have some questions about HIV and incubation period, etc. I hope I can get some good answers on here because all I have now are lots of questions.
The short version of the story is that my partner of 14 months received a positive test result for HIV about 2 weeks ago (blood test, at a doctor's office... after becoming sick with HIV related illnesses). I did a Home Access mail in anonymous blood test shortly after, and tested negative. I plan to follow up with a blood test at a doctor's office tomorrow to confirm. I top, he bottoms. We have always had unprotected sex, both believing the other to be negative. We have been having sex for over 2 years, but lived across the country from each other until he moved in with me when we got into a relationship 14 months ago. We haven't had sex in basically 3 months due to at first, my view of a deteriorating relationship and desire not to send mixed messages... and later, his illness.
He claims he has been monogamous since he moved here. I am on the fence as to whether to believe him or not, as there is circumstantial evidence in either direction in my opinion.
What doesn't make sense to me is that if he is monogamous as he claims he has been since moving in with me 14 months ago, how could HIV just show up?? Can the incubation period take that long? He first got sick in late March, early April and it was treated as a throat infection. In early June at the doctor's office, after being exhausted, basically bed-ridden, lots of coughing, loss of 30lbs (160 was his normal weight, he went down to 130 -- on a 6'4" frame -- so basically he went from being skinny to a skeleton), night sweats, and "thrush" (the doctor said it was the worst thrush he had seen). All of these are acute HIV symptoms.
He is now doing a lot better since testing HIV+ and getting strong medication to cure the thrush, bacteria in his lungs etc, but is still not 100%.
I have been as helpful as supportive as I can be while working full-time, and attending to his needs (housework, making food, grocery shopping, etc) when not working.
I guess my question is, does it really make sense that, as he claims to me, he must have contracted HIV before moving in with me (so over 14 months) ago... and have no sign of it until about a year later?
Thanks in advance..
The short version of the story is that my partner of 14 months received a positive test result for HIV about 2 weeks ago (blood test, at a doctor's office... after becoming sick with HIV related illnesses). I did a Home Access mail in anonymous blood test shortly after, and tested negative. I plan to follow up with a blood test at a doctor's office tomorrow to confirm. I top, he bottoms. We have always had unprotected sex, both believing the other to be negative. We have been having sex for over 2 years, but lived across the country from each other until he moved in with me when we got into a relationship 14 months ago. We haven't had sex in basically 3 months due to at first, my view of a deteriorating relationship and desire not to send mixed messages... and later, his illness.
He claims he has been monogamous since he moved here. I am on the fence as to whether to believe him or not, as there is circumstantial evidence in either direction in my opinion.
What doesn't make sense to me is that if he is monogamous as he claims he has been since moving in with me 14 months ago, how could HIV just show up?? Can the incubation period take that long? He first got sick in late March, early April and it was treated as a throat infection. In early June at the doctor's office, after being exhausted, basically bed-ridden, lots of coughing, loss of 30lbs (160 was his normal weight, he went down to 130 -- on a 6'4" frame -- so basically he went from being skinny to a skeleton), night sweats, and "thrush" (the doctor said it was the worst thrush he had seen). All of these are acute HIV symptoms.
He is now doing a lot better since testing HIV+ and getting strong medication to cure the thrush, bacteria in his lungs etc, but is still not 100%.
I have been as helpful as supportive as I can be while working full-time, and attending to his needs (housework, making food, grocery shopping, etc) when not working.
I guess my question is, does it really make sense that, as he claims to me, he must have contracted HIV before moving in with me (so over 14 months) ago... and have no sign of it until about a year later?
Thanks in advance..


















