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Belami interview insulting to the gay consumer

Having sex with 16 or 17 years old girls is hardly perverted.
Some ages of consent in Europe:
Austria, Germany, Hungary: 14
Denmark, France, Check Republic: 15
England, Norway, Russia: 16
 
NO. It is far-fetched. To achieve an erection you require sexual stimulus. And to maintain one you need to have some sexual attraction towards men..

Viagra doesn't give boners--- they provide physiological conditions for it. The drug was made for high blood pressure--and later was promoted for sexual impotence. They don't give automatic boners. They require a sexual stimulant. Erections are a involuntary response. You can't achieve them and maintain during acts of sex unless you have some kind of sexual stimulant.
You're correct as far as Viagra goes. That is where alprostadil (Caverject is one common brand name) steps in. "Caverject is injected beneath the skin at the base of the penis. Within a few minutes, the penis becomes erect regardless of physical or psychological stimulation (unlike Viagra) and can last more than an hour. Caverject has been used for several years by gay men employed as sex workers. Although Viagra seems to have replaced Caverject on the set of porn video productions as the erectile drug of choice, Caverject remains popular due to its reliability, which is independent of erotic stimulation." And quoting an interview "some guys insist on using it because, unlike Viagra, they don't have to think about it — they just stay hard for hours and hours." (There is also a suppository form called Muse.)

In a earlier interview Duroy commented that people complained that the guys that bottomed in his videos were often flaccid. He said that was part of working with straight guys. He went on to suggest that some gay porn studios (American) that consistently have guys bottoming with wood are using Caverject. In short, it is possible to have a solid erection with NO sexual stimulant. This is one reason I am leery of guys that have full wood at the start of the scene.

In gay porn, guys are have sex with guys. Some of these performers are turned on by guys a lot (homosexuals); some like guys some or a little (bisexuals); and some are not turned on by guys at all (heterosexuals).
 
And no one here has clarified what is 'gay' if we don't ascribe to it same sex fucking?

Yes, we have, repeatedly.

Gay, or homosexual, refers to a person's sexual orientation being toward members of the same sex.
 
That is a convoluted definition of gay.

That def sounds like orientation is a mental state, for which you've railed against on this board!

No, it's the standard definition of gay. It's a sexual orientation.

Gay people are gay even when they don't have sex - and even if they've never had sex.
 
well most of it's pretty hot
and those guys are "straight" at all
they might not be gay. but they're not straight, that's for sure
 
So, People are gay for not having gay sex, and are straight for having gay sex. hmm. interesting point of view. You keep beating that drum! lol.

Strawman.

People are gay if their sexual orientation is to members of the same sex.
 
For a concept that is 'simple' you seem to have difficulty applying it to men who are aroused based off of gay sexual contact.

Again: People are gay if their sexual orientation is to members of the same sex.

Friction isn't the same thing as sexual orientation.
 
This, again from the guy who basically said: Gay people are gay from not having gay sex, and straight people are straight from gay sex. Hardly, the opinion of someone who can be taken seriously.

Except I never said that. You're focused on having sex as a definition, but that's not always a reflection of orientation.

People are gay if their sexual orientation is to members of the same sex.
 
Mercury Jones is right, pittguy is wrong:

"People are gay if their sexual orientation is to members of the same sex."

Correspondingly, people are straight if their sexual orientation is to members of the opposite sex.

Obviously, there are shades of grey - some folks 100% gay, some folks 100% straight, and many, many folks somewhere in-between ;)

. . . and none of this has anything to do with sexual activity. A man can have sex with another man (possibly using stimulatory aids, including $$) and still be (close to) 100% straight. Correspondingly, a gay man (like myself) can have sex with a woman and still be (close to) 100% gay.

Sexual activity can have nothing to do with orientation, though they are usually closely correspondent.
 
I've told you the conventional definition already, pittguy: People are gay if their sexual orientation is to members of the same sex.

You complain that no one will tell you the definition, but there it is.
 
This is you instant on this point--yet don't really apply it to gay-4-pay'ers

It would be easier to respond if your sentence was coherent.

But the fact remains: People are gay if their sexual orientation is to members of the same sex.

You asked for the definition, and that's it.
 
The last word on these matters doesn't change the fact you have the burden of proof for those claims that these men are straight! Cite sources... PROVE IT!

I don't know which ones are straight, and neither do you. We only have reports of their orientation, some of which may be true, some of which may be false.

I was providing the definition you requested: People are gay if their sexual orientation is to members of the same sex.
 
So what's the definition of a guy who has sex with another guy???

The act itself is called homosexuality.

Homo = Same Sexuality = Sex
 
You continue to confuse homosexual act with homosexual orientation.

Though the two typically overlap, they do not necessarily or always do so.

True. Whom you sexually desire is your orientation, whether one is sexually active or not.
 
True. Whom you sexually desire is your orientation, whether one is sexually active or not.

oh, and I forgot to add, if it's continual, well then yeah the sexual acts probably confirm one's true sexual orientation. I hate all the "straight" lies.
 
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