It's not practiced because the world is not "pure or in holy state."....
Thanks for that.
Totally answers my question 100%
Thanks again!

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It's not practiced because the world is not "pure or in holy state."....

There is a verse in Matthew, the one about men who are "born eunuchs for the Kingdom of God."
You'll note in the same book (Matthew) Jesus is quoted making a reference to God's original plan of a man and woman in union - a popular verse many Christians use when asked what Jesus had to say about homosexuality.
Matthew 19:3-9, Jesus said: "Haven't you read," he replied, "that at the beginning the Creator 'made them male and female,' and said, 'For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh'? So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate.
I'm not going to even bother arguing with you.No I will not. This doesn't even make sense. All scholars, who analyzed that passage know it refers to men having sex with men. The only argument is what type of sin, and the scope of it.
I would love to see you explain away Leviticus 20:13
I will even link to the religion apologist website, religious tolerance
http://www.religioustolerance.org/hom_bibh3.htm
If you have nothing to add to this discussion, then don't waste my time.
You now have the honor of being the first person on JUB I've ever placed on ignore.The explanation would be too complicated to go into here. I would suggest reading Boswell's Christianity, Social Tolerance, and Homosexuality, and his later work Same-Sex Unions in Pre-Modern Europe. They'll answer your question in depth. Neither book is an easy read, but the information contained therein is illuminating.One can't help wonder, however, why it is that so many well-educated and passionate people who have made the study of the Bible (in Hebrew, Greek, Aramaic, etc) and the history of the Jewish and Christian faiths their life's work still believe that homosexual sex is singled out in the scriptures of the Hebrews and, for the Christians, in the letters of Paul as being a particularly heinous sin in the eyes of God, not the least of them being the current Pontifex Maximus.
Actually, there's more to the story. The writer of the passage aforementioned in Leviticus uses the Hebrew term "zakar" as the person not to be slept with. That word does not mean just any man, but, according to Strong's Exhaustive Concordance "a male person worthy of note." Taking the passage into the proper context, it can mean only one man -- a high priest of the god Moloch (or Molech, depending on which translation you use). The ancient peoples believed sperm to be a symbol of fertility -- not just procreation, but life itself. It meant many offspring to till the soil and plant the crops and tend the flocks and herds. More fertility, more crops and more animals. All of this meant more wealth. By performing sexual favors for the high priest of Moloch, it was a symbolic ritual by which in return they expected Moloch to grant them fertility of family, crops, and animals. The passages in Leviticus were, therefore, not condemnations of loving same-sex relationships, but a stern warning not to practice pagan fertility ritual, thus keeping the Nation of Israel clean and free from idol worship.In Judaism, homosexual acts not feelings or attraction is the forbidden part. The passage in Leviticus does prohibit the act, there is no question about it, but also (people should not ignore that the Torah or the Old Testament in English, does forbid or regulate many straight sexual acts too). In Jewish law homosexual acts are not seen as the worse thing a person can do, so the Rabbis are never crazy about it like you see in many Christian Churches.
The Jewish Sages have commented on this in the Talmud throughout ages. There are many explanations given for this prohibition including and not limiting to the story of Sodom where besides hedonism, theft, and greed, lascivious sexual behaviors were blamed. One part includes the story where young boys were used as prostitutes by adult male population and other includes a story where Lot's male guests were raped and abused by the idol worshipers i.e. Sodomized.
In Middle Ages, Talmudic scholars pondered if this prohibition applied to their times, and they answered that it did because they saw homosexuality as a threat to procreation and stability in households--marriage, family and procreation being the foundations to Jewish life. They feared that if prohibition was lax, men would chose to stay in homosexual relationships and stop marrying women and having kids or husbands would have more chances to cheat on their wives.
http://myjewishlearning.com/ideas_b...sexuality/Sex_Homosexuality_Halakhah_Gold.htm

