So in your world, 1% = 0, 10% = 0, 20% = 0.
If it's zero, it's zero. If it's 10%, it's ten percent. The percentage means the desire.
So you're not using "simple English", you're just expressing a prejudice about how you think bi people should just forget that they're bi and be gay.
Ok, even slower, in even simpler English.
There are TWO things here. You think they are one thing. They are not. They are separate.
1. Attraction. It's a physical and psychological combination. You can't measure it. That's why those percentages are dumb, but I didn't start using them. If I have 1% attraction to girls, I would be unaware of it. It is too small to register, basically just some subconscious or physical footnote in a back page of the story of me. I expect the same would apply to 10% or 15%. It's like sex drive itself. If you only want sex 1% of the time, you basically will NEVER have sex, simply because it's not just about that once in a hundred moment when you do, it's also about where you will be at the time, who with, etc. To give a PERSONAL example, I would say I am 80% top and 20% bottom. Not a random percentile, I have actually thought pretty hard on that. I have explored bottoming with multiple partners, and have found it to be emotionally intense and enjoyable, but ultimately too much work for too little payoff, totally contrary to my natural leanings as well as my personality. That said, those 20% mean that once in a GREAT while I feel the urge to get fucked. Do you know how often I have so far ended up being in a situation where circumstances allowed me to act on it or even notice it before it had passed?
NONE. ZERO. All my bottoming has been a conscious decision caused by the dynamic of the sexual encounter, not out of personal desire to bottom. Now, I am gay. I have sex with dudes. Chances are, circumstances will often put me in a position where one of us will have to bottom. Yet it's never happened EXACTLY when I actually felt like bottoming. Because 80/20 doesn't mean that I bottom once every five times, it means that
I PREFER TOPPING FOUR TIMES MORE THAN BOTTOMING. Bottoming is
FOUR TIMES LESS LIKELY TO APPEAL TO ME IN ANY SITUATION THAN TOPPING. I could literally spend my entire life exclusively topping, and be perfectly content and never feel like I missed anything.
THIS is what those percentages mean.
What then would be the chance, if instead of the 80/20 top/bottom ratio, I was a 80/20 straight/gay dude? I would be ALL about vagina, and once in a GREAT while I might have an itch to mess around with a dude. Let's imagine for the sake of wild fantacizing that I am not a horny frat boy and don't have ready access to hot dudes in the next room. I live in a straight world because I prefer girls FOUR TIMES MORE than guys. I am FOUR TIMES MORE LIKELY to prefer a girl in
ANY situation. When exactly will my random impulse to do a guy coincide with a situation where that would be even remotely possible? Why would I bother looking for it when I have FOUR TIMES BIGGER ATTRACTION to girls?
THAT is why my hypothetical 80/20 guy, while
technically "bisexual" is
functionally and
identity-wise utterly straight, just like I always identify as a top, and not versatile. He lives a straight life in a straight environment, and that random urge is too rare and weak to actually provoke real action or soul-searching and identity-redefinition, ESPECIALLY considering the pressure for men to be straight in heteronormative culture.
You keep talking about these percentages as if they are equal parts, or just the number of your sexual encounters and attractions, divided by hundred. It isn't that at all. Hell, I could be 1% straight, or 5% straight, or 10% straight for all I know. It will never ever manifest itself, so how does it make me bi?
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2. Desire. It isn't just a random synapses exploding in your brain randomly, out of randomness. Desire is formed by strong psychological and physical currents that you channel in conscious interest. Now in my topping/bottoming situation, 80/20 has NEVER been enough to make me actually WANT to get fucked, to find someone to do it while single. It has definitely manifested itself more during relationships, but I have the luxury of having my relationships - by virtue of the nature of homosexuality - give me ready access to satisfying that itch. And yet I still never fantasize about it, it's never part of my sexual identity, it's just a random thing I'd do once in a great while if opportunity presented itself, and not miss one bit if it never did.
The 80/20 straight dude does not have the luxury of his relationship providing him with an outlet for his unformulated itch. What's more, while bottoming and topping are natural parts of my world, same-sex intercourse is NOT part of his. He doesn't have the outlets, cultural context or sexuality-driven self-awareness that I have (since I have had to actually
figure out and explore my sexuality, and he never had to). How then would he form that desire?
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Now, you are free to make a case that he would. But I
sincerely hope you understand now where I was coming from. The way I see it:
1% bi = 1% technically "bi" and = 100% functionally straight/gay as it couldn't produce a conscious strong desire.
5% bi = 5% technically "bi" and = 100% functionally straight/gay as it couldn't produce a conscious strong desire.
10% bi = 10% technically "bi" and = 100% functionally straight/gay as it couldn't produce a conscious strong desire.
Etc.
The way I see it, in order to actually produce an active desire that would drive you to actively seek encounters with the gender opposite to your default, your interest in that opposite gender would need to be if not equal, then close to that, or in dumb percentile speech - at least 35-40% and up.
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And another point that has been made repeatedly, and repeatedly has been ignored by you. WHY is it that only the "bi" guys on the "gay" side of the fence insist on their 1%/5%/10% attraction to women making them "bi"? Why don't the ones on the "straight" side do it?