- Joined
- Jan 15, 2006
- Posts
- 122,816
- Reaction score
- 4,046
- Points
- 113
I can never agree to that. 'The right of the people' is not core within the amendment.
So you choose deliberate ignorance over history: the sole reason the Constitution passed was because the first ten amendments were promised, to guard the rights of the people. That's why they're called "The Bill of Rights" -- the whole point is about the rights of the people.
The whole constitution covers the rights of the people.
This should help: http://www.law.cornell.edu/constitution/
See, with the glaring exception of the right of habeus corpus, the entire Constitution prior to amendments is about government power.
As such it can be reasonably inferred that 'the people', in whole or individually, are being referenced in EVERY part of it, so trying to determine whether 'the people' refers to individuals or a collective in regards to the 2nd is as redundant as trying to do the same with any other.
Well, since none of the Bill of Rights refers to the people as "a collective", but to individuals, this is reasonably correct -- except that few sections of the Constitution have anything to do with "the people", other than the foundation that the people are assigning to government the exercise of some authority derived from the rights of the people.
And Heller being 'quite correct' is dubious on a 5-4 vote. 'Quite' is the far more operative word there than 'correct'. The decision is about as fair as electing a President that more than 2/3rds of the population doesn't support.
I know -- it should have been 9 - 0, the same decision, except stronger, because there is no doubt from colonial common law or the writings of the Founders and Framers that the Second is first of all -- as is true of all rights -- an individual right.
I haven't suggested that grammatically it is more relevant than 'the people', but since, as already stated, the definition of 'people' encompasses everybody (collective or singularly) as the fundamental overlying of the constitution, it takes a lesser role (since already established) when being specific to parts of the constitution. As such, the following is most relevant:
1. Being necessary to the security of a free state
2. A well regulated militia
3. The right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.
The third IS the amendment -- it's the essential statement (just diagram the sentence). The rest is commentary, first giving a reason and second describing the sort of militia.
I disagree. Since, the police are a paid and trained state force, they constitute a perfect example of 'well regulated militia'.
The military are the direct parallel of a noble's private troops.
Militia means NOT GOVERNMENT -- that's basic to the entire concept. It's why when the National Guard is called up by the feds, they cease to be militia.
A noble's private troops' main function was to keep the peace -- they are the exact parallel of a police force. Under the militia model, they also served to stand against the king's army, thus being the opposite of a national military in that they were expected, when local rights were infringed, to stand against that military.
The whole militia concept is loaded with the checks and balances notion built into the Constitution: the militia exist to preserve the security of the free state, which means on the one hand to be ready to be called up for service of that state against outsiders and on the other to stand ready to oppose the government should it become tyrannical.
Furthermore, even regarding the state police as a standing army, they are the standing army of the state, not the federal government, which means, looking at it in a historical context, whether you call them police, standing army or militia, they serve the same purpose, providing the security of the state over federal government, the whole point of including the amendment in the first place, to satisfy anti-federalists that their respective states would retain power over themselves.
Fifty years ago I might have granted this point. Since then, however, local law enforcement have become little more than an extension of the federal law people. If state police forces were required to arrest federal agents intruding on their turf, if federal agents were required to obtain local permission before doing so much as stepping out of their cars in a local jurisdiction, you might have the beginnings of a case.
And yet in your interpretation, you have ignored 'well regulated'. Something being CONTINUALLY done in the gun debate by pro-gunners.
LOL
Apparently you haven't read my posts -- my entire position rests on "well-regulated" (which has little to nothing at all to do with regulations). This entire situation exists because law-makers refuse to treat the militia seriously or to exercise their authority to assign some substance to the "discipline" portion of a well-regulated militia. While Wayne LaPierre ignores the well-regulated aspect except for lip service, the liberals in government assign it no importance at all -- in fact, they're afraid of the possibility (truth be told, all but honest politicians are afraid of it, so they're in broad company).



























