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Re: O'Reilly shows us we can't have religion in sc
I most certainly "understand how the Law is referenced in the NT" -- I've written papers on the topic, and studied it the Greek.
Yes, it's set out as showing God's justice -- but that doesn't make it a moral code. There were things about morals in it, but as the prophets made clear, those weren't the final word -- and Jesus made that quite plain as well, with His "You have heard it said... but I tell you..." statements. He also showed where the Law was immoral -- by referencing an OT incident which demonstrated that very thing: David and his men eating from the altar bread, which was forbidden... as well as with His noting that even though it is "work", it is acceptable to save life or limb on the Sabbath. Those examples are where Paul gets his argument that the Law was inadequate.
So God doesn't "stand or fall by the morality of the Law" -- He stands or falls by the purpose of the Law, which is quite a different thing. That purpose was to teach mercy, love, and justice -- which is where the prophet gets off saying for God, "I desire mercy, and not sacrifice", when the OT says that God commanded those sacrifices.
That's something one should begin to suspect back with the addendum to the first 'commandment': God says no making images of things from the heavens or the earth, yet just a few chapters later He's giving instructions for making images of things from the heavens and the earth!
A guy could almost conclude that laws are made to be broken.... the truth is that those laws were made to be broken by rising above them, as Jesus did.
If you really understand how the Law is referenced in the NT, this suggestion is laughable.
The law is edified by everyone, including Jesus, as a demonstration of God's justice and perfection. It is portrayed as the starting point to the divine revelation which ultimately led to Christ.
So if God stands or falls by the morality of the law, he most definitely loses on that point.
I most certainly "understand how the Law is referenced in the NT" -- I've written papers on the topic, and studied it the Greek.
Yes, it's set out as showing God's justice -- but that doesn't make it a moral code. There were things about morals in it, but as the prophets made clear, those weren't the final word -- and Jesus made that quite plain as well, with His "You have heard it said... but I tell you..." statements. He also showed where the Law was immoral -- by referencing an OT incident which demonstrated that very thing: David and his men eating from the altar bread, which was forbidden... as well as with His noting that even though it is "work", it is acceptable to save life or limb on the Sabbath. Those examples are where Paul gets his argument that the Law was inadequate.
So God doesn't "stand or fall by the morality of the Law" -- He stands or falls by the purpose of the Law, which is quite a different thing. That purpose was to teach mercy, love, and justice -- which is where the prophet gets off saying for God, "I desire mercy, and not sacrifice", when the OT says that God commanded those sacrifices.
That's something one should begin to suspect back with the addendum to the first 'commandment': God says no making images of things from the heavens or the earth, yet just a few chapters later He's giving instructions for making images of things from the heavens and the earth!
A guy could almost conclude that laws are made to be broken.... the truth is that those laws were made to be broken by rising above them, as Jesus did.

























